A bit off topic...
This has been bugging me today so I was wondering if anyone had a good answer.
In next week's parasha (Bamidbar/Numbers 13:1), the list of the meraglim includes:
Why wasn't mateh (tribe of) Ephraim placed under mateh Yosef (Joseph)? And why was there a separation of 2 verses between them?
I didn't see any answers in the meforshim I had available. It seems fairly glaring so I figured someone must have commented on it, perhaps in the context of the entire order listed.
Israel Seen – Muslim privates swear allegiance to IDF
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